Canadian Anaesthetic MCQ Collection TWO
"The FRCP 1997 Collection"
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51. PEEP may cause
1. ? CVP
2. ? Qs/Qt by decreasing total lung water
3. ? work of breathing in patients with high intrinsic autopeep
4. Decreased oxygenation in unilateral lung disease due to shunting of blood to the bad lung
5. ? preload to the heart

52. All of the following are true concerning NO except
1. It is found exclusively in the endothelial cells
2. Metabolism is decreased by hypoxia
3. Mediates the effects of nitroglycerin
4. Increased Cyclic GMP
5. Duration is 10mins

53. Which of the following is a common physiologic consequence of sleep apnea?
1. Hypovolemia
2. Hypotension
3. Polycythemia
4. Left sided failure
5. 
5.
 
54. Regarding the line isolation monitor
1. Faulty equipment plugged in will convert the system to a standard grounded system
2. Will alarm when 2-5 mA leak is detected
3. The number displayed on the gauge is the total current running on the system at that time
4. Continuously monitors the integrityof an isolated power system
5. 

55. Which is true regarding curare
1. Increased dose is required in thyrotoxicosis
2.  Histamine release from dTC can be prevented by H2 blockers
3.  Acts on muscarinic receptors in the heart
4.  Infants require lower plasma levels for block
5. 

56. Concerning Hepatitis A
1. Transmission is common from blood transfusion
2. A chronic carrier state exists
3. 
4. 
5. 

57. Dental damage during anaesthesia (from closed claims report) show.
1. >50% of cases occur during emergencies
2. The lower right incisor is the most commonly damaged
3. It is more common to dislodge loose teeth than to chip or damage teeth
4. Incidence of 1/10 000 cases
5. >50% of cases occur at extubation

58. Which of the following is a 1992 CAS standard (guideline) for monitoring (remembered accurately)
1. EEG with at least 1 lead
2. ECG with II and V5
3. Capnography with waveform for sedated patients
4. Blood pressure monitoring at a minimum interval of 5 minutes
5. Continuous temperature monitoring

59. All of the following are S/E of epidural morphine except (remembered accurately)
1. Nausea and vomiting
2. Delayed hypoventilation
3. Urinary retention
4. Pruritus
5. Hives


60.  All of the following may explain a ? BP after release of an aortic cross clamp for intrarenal aneurysm repair except
1. Increase in O2 consumption due to anaerobic metabolism in lower limbs
2. Reactive hyperemia from release of mediators from an ischemic lower extremity
3. Decreased CVP from redistribution of blood to the lower extremities
4. Excessive bleeding causing hypotension
5. Citrate toxicity from banked blood tranfusion

61. Which is true regarding 10% pentastarch
1. Plasma t 1/2 = 25 hours
2. Causes problems with cross matching
3. Causes pancreatitis with increased amylase
4. 15-20 ml/kg unlikely to cause coagulopathy in a normal patient
5. 

62. Disadvantages of pressure controlled ventilation
1.  Decelerating inspiratory flow
2.  Square waveform
3.  Tidal volume variation with lung compliance
4.  Cannot be used with pressure support ventilation
5.  Poor synchrony of patient and ventilator

63. Which of the following is true concerning TPA?
1. Combines with plasmin
2. Is a specific activator of plasmin to plasminogen to cause fibrinolysis
3. No recombinant DNA form is available
4. Does not cause systemic bleeding yet lysis clots
5. Is a non-specific fibrinolytic

64. What is the best investigation for a patient with sciatic and nerve root findings?
1. Spinal radiography
2. Lumbar puncture
3. Evoked potentials
4. EMG
5. MRI

65. Which of the following long term antianginals best prevents ischemia prior to myocardial revascularization?
1. Short acting sublingual nitrates
2. Long acting oral nitrates
3. Oral beta blockers
4. Calcium channel blockers
5. Calcium channel blockers and nitrates
5.


66. All of the following are signs of brain stem anaesthesia with retrobulbar block except
1. Tinnitus
2. Hypertension
3. Tachycardia
4. Apnea
5. Unconsciousness

67. Epidural steroids and low back pain
1. Only useful in failed back surgery
2. No efficacy has been shown in nerve root compression
3. Action is believed to be neurally and perineurally
4. Intrathecal injection is harmless
5. Require steroid cover preop

68. What combination of nerves should be blocked to perform surgery on the great toe?  Combinations of saphenous, deep peroneal, superficial peroneal, sural and tibial.
1.  Sural, saphenous, deep peron
2.  Tibial, saph, deep peron
3.  Super peron, deep peron, saph
4. 
5. 

69. An alcoholic develops megaloblastic anemia post op some procedure.  Which of the following may have contributed to the anemia?
1. N2O
2. Isoflurane
3. Propofol
4. Enflurane
5. 

70. All of the following will ? right to left shunt through a PFO except
1. Pneumonectomy
2. Lobectomy
3. Decreased LV compliance
4. Mitral regurgitation
5.  Peep

71. All of the following are true concerning C. difficile infection except
1. Associated with overuse of antibiotic therapy
2. Can get release of toxin by organism that is enteric
3. Pseudomembranous colitis may develop
4. Infection from an asymptomatic carrier is rare
5. Rarely transmits between staff and patients

72. Epidural hematoma
1. Most common cause of paraplegia post aneurysm surgery
2. Back pain is always pesent
3. Most commonly associated with indwelling epidural catheters
4. Surgical decompression within 12 hours is necessary in order to have a chance of recovery
5. 

73. Which of the following is a component of the descending pain inhibitory pathway
1. Locus ceruleous
2. Ventroposterlateral thalamic nuclei
3.  Dorsolateral funiculus
4.  Dorsal root ganglion
5. Substantia gelatinosa

74. Which of the following is a benefit of smoking cessation 48 h before surgery?
1. Right shift of the O2 Hb dissociation curve
2. ? ciliary function
3. Improved pulmonary function tests
4.  Decreased sputum production
5.  Reduced lung complications postop

75. Most common complication of transtracheal jet ventilation:
1. Pneumothorax
2. subcutaneous emphysema
3. mediastinal emphysema
4. esophageal rupture
5. arterial  rupture

76. Laudanosine elimination is delayed in
1. Renal failure
2. Hepatic failure
3.  Decreased pseudocholinesterase
4.  
5. 

77. Concerning the GABA
1. The binding site is the external portion of subunit 2 of the GABA receptor
2. Inhibits through ? conductance of sodium
3. Barbiturates and benzodiazepines bind at the same site
4.  If given IV it will cause general anaesthesia by action on CNS receptors
5. 

78. Which might you see on an ECG from a patient post heart transplant?
1. LBBB
2. ST depression in lateral leads
3. Duplicate P waves
4. Poor R wave progression
5. Prolonged QT
6. Prolonged PR

79. True statement about insulin
1. Average adult secretes 300-400 units/day
2. Metabolized primarily by the pancreas
3. Serum t 1/2 = 1.5 - 2 hours
4. Resistance is usually caused by anti-insulin antibodies
5. 

80. How do you distinguish premature atrial contraction with aberrancy from premature ventricular contraction?
1. Left bundle branch block
2. Unusual initial deflection of the QRS complex
3. QRS > 0.14 ms
4. Noncompensatory pause
5. A different p wave

81. What is the best initial treatment for post-partum uterine atony in a symptomatic asthmatic?
1. PGF2
2. Ergonovine
3. Terbutaline
4. Oxytocin
5. Adrenalin

82. Which of the following curves represents the relationship between cerebral blood flow and the mean arterial pressure?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E

83. Which curve represents the relationship between cerebral blood flow and PaO2?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E

84. Which is true regarding the function of modern ECG monitors?
1. Frequency bandwidth is wider for the diagnostic than for the monitoring mode
2. ST deflection appears more depressed in monitoring than in diagnostic mode
3. Low frequency filters eliminate the interference from muscle contraction
4. High frequency filters improve the signal in cases of a loose skin sensor
5. The Low frequency rates in the diagnostic mode are lower than the lowest frequencies for the monitoring mode

85. Regarding pediatric caudal blocks which is true?
1. Cannot get a thoracic block
2. 0.5 ml/kg bupivicaine will give a thoracic block to T4
3.  Urinary retention is rare
4.  Hypotension is common
5.  With single shot, infection is no more common than with epidural block

What is the dose of narcan for a neonate with narcotic induced respiratory depression?
1. .001 mg/kg
2. 10 ug/kg
3. .01 mg/kg
4. .10 mg/kg
5. .2 mg/kg

86. Fentanyl compared to morphine given in the epidural space:  which is true?
1. Fentanyl is more likely to cause late respiratory depression
2. Morphine has a more rapid onset
3. Fentanyl has a longer duration
4. Fentanyl has a more rapid onset

87. Which lobe of the lung has 3 sequential bronchi?
1. RUL
1.
2. RML
3. LUL
4. lingula
5. RLL

88. Alfentanil compared to Fentanyl: which is true?
1. Alfentanil is more protein bound
2. Alfentanil is more ionised
3. Alfentanil has a snaller clearance
4. Alfentanil is more lipid soluble
5. Alfentanil has a larger volume of distribution

89. Regarding pediatric outpatient surgery:
1. ASA I, II, III are acceptable
2. must be >12 weeks post natal age
3. Unsuitable for cystoscopy
4. Postop N/V more common with procedures lasting longer than 20 mins
5.

90. Regarding the addition of bicarb to lidocaine 1.5%, which is true?
1. pCO2 increases
2. solution precipitates because local anaesthetic is in an alkaline solution
3. pH increases to > 10
4. local anaesthetic is more ionized when bicarb added
5.

91. Wide anion gap acidosis is caused by:
1. renal tubular acidosis
2. carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
3. ureterosigmoidoscopy
4. NG suction
5. salicylate poisoning

92. Regarding pulse oximetry:
1. unaffected by methylene blue
2. may read 85% with significant amount of met Hgb
3. accurate to within 1%
4. usually reads lower than with co-oximeter
5. calibration required each month

93. What is best evidence of endotracheal intubation?
1. bilat chest movement
2. presence of ETCO2
3. visual confirmation of ETT passing thru the cords
4. bilat equal breath sounds
5. mist forming on ETT

94. Best indicator of periop mortality in elderly patient
1. DM
2. cerebrovascular disease
3. renal failure
4. heart failure
5. COPD

95. Increasing FiO2 to mother causes:
1. retrolental fibroplasia in the fetus
2. premature closure of the ductus arteriosus
3. increased O2 delivery to fetus
4. decreased uterine blood flow
5.  Increased uterine blood flow

96. Meperidine IV causes:
1. myocardial depression
2. delerium
3. decreased SVR
4. 
5. 

97. Transfusion reaction can cause all except:
1. Bradycardia
2. hypotension
3. fever
4. chest pain
5.  Chills

98. Acute pulmonary hypertension in children causes all except:
1. increased LA pressure
2. bradycardia
3. increased LVEDP
3.
4. increased RV pressure
5.

99. In what circumstances is a low dose of NTG of 50-250 µg IV appropriate?
1. manual removal of placenta
2. manual removal of acreta
3. delivery by c-section of preemie
4. vaginal delivery of second twin
5. Breech for delivery of head 

100. Right to left shunt is associated with all except:
1. prolonged inhalational induction
2. prolonged intravenous induction
3. Increased pul flow
4.  L vent failure
5.  Decreased PAO2

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Last updated Saturday, 23 July 2005 02:07 PM - Kerry Brandis, 2001