Canadian FRCP 1997 Collection

Canadian Anaesthetic MCQ Collection TWO
"The FRCP 1997 Collection"

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101. TEE versus Doppler:
1. contraindicated in esophageal stricture
2. better at detecting VAE
3. measures cardiac output accurately
4. better for assessing valves
5. Good for assessing ascending aorta aneurysm and dissection

102. In patients with congenital prolonged Q-T syndrome:
1. ß-blockade perioperatively is contraindicated
2. Isoflurane causes a significant increase in arrythmias
3. Stellate ganglion block can be preventative
4. Ketamine is the induction drug of choice
5. Torsades de pointe is uncommon

103. What is the approx VD in a 70 kg patient given 1000 mg IV, and with following pattern of conc-time?

104. What should be the minute ventilation of a 70 kg man with normal VCO2 to maintain a normal PaCO2 at rest?
1. 6300 ml/min
2. 4200 ml/min
3. 5600 ml/min
4. 7200 ml/min
5. 8200 ml/min

105. Which of the following cardiac defects would be optimized by the following cardiac parameters: increasing preload; decreasing PVR; normal SVR; decreasing contractility; bradycardia?
1. Infundibular pulmonary obstruction
2. pulmonic stenosis
3. VSD with left to right shunt
4. VSD with right to left shunt
5.

106. Which of the following would cause the greatest decrease in cardiac output in HOCM?
1. Trendelenburg position
2. increased afterload
3. halothane
4. volume infusion
5. Nodal rhythm

107. The oral pre-op sedative dose of midazolam in children is:
1. 0.1 mg/kg
2. 0.2 mg/kg
3. 0.5 mg/kg
4. 1.0 mg/kg
5. 0 mg/kg

108. Which of the following is true with midazolam?
1. t1/2 is half of diazepam
2. effect is terminated by biotransformation
3. has active metabolites
4.
4.
5.

109. An obstetric patient has placenta previa which is true?
1. 25-30% incidence of acreta
2. In acreta, the placenta invades completely through the myometrium.
3.
4.

110. When is the PAW (wedge) most likely less than LVEDP?
1. Atrial myxoma
2. acute aortic regurg
3. mitral stenosis
4. pulmonary hypertension
5.

111. Which of the following causes a normal anion gap acidosis?
1. Prolonged vomiting
2. Carbonic anhydrase inhibition
3. ketoacidosis
4. renal failure
5.

112. Which of the following are true with pulmonary contusion?

1. immediate radiographic changes
2. normal capillary permeability
3. infection is a common complication
4. pulmonary compliance is increased
5. Threat to life is hypercarbia

113. 50 mg of demerol divided in 10 ml saline injected IM during labour: which is true?

1. If given > than 5 hours prior to delivery it causes no change in Apgar ir neurobehavioural scores (Brazelton scores)
2. Gives 8 hours of anaesthesia
3. Principle inactive metabolite is normeperidine
4. T 1/2 in the neonate is > 13h
5.

114. Pregnant patient coming for surgery in first trimester:
1. no problem with aortocaval compression until 28 weeks
2. no risk of aspiration until third trimester
3. midazolam causes increased risk of cleft palate
4.
5.

115. Which of the following is false regarding hyperkalemia?
1. cardiac arrest will occur with K+ of 7.0.
2. Hypercalcemia worsens hyperkalemia
3. is associated with dig toxicity
4. associated with met acidosis
5.

116. In which of the following would clonidine 5 µg/kg have the least cardiac effect?
1. Acute Ethanol withdrawal
2. Chronic cardiac therapy
3. Aortic stenosis
4. Hypovolemia
5. Acute pericarditis

117. Low levels of STP in the fetus after maternal injection are due to all of the following except:
1. maternal redistribution
2. placental metabolism
3. fetal liver metabolism
4. uneven villous perfusion
5. dilution in fetal blood volume

118. The most sensitive detector of venous air embolus is:
1. End tidal nitrogen
2. End tidal CO2
3. Precordial Doppler
4. Increased PAP
5. Decreased SaO2

119. Valslva manoeuvre causes syncope in:
1. Posterior mediastinal mass
2. SVC syndrome
3. Pulmonary artery obstruction
3.
4. Anterior mediastinal mass with tracheal compression
5. Variable intrathoracic obstruction

120. A view limited to the posterior half of the glottis at larygoscopy is class:
1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV
5. V

121. Myofascial pain syndrome causes:
1. Increased ESR
2. Non-radiating pain from trigger points
3. Not helped by physiotherapy
4. Muscle weakness without atrophy
5. Pathologic change evident on biopsy

122. Cardiac changes in geriatrics:
1. Decreased heart rate at rest
2. Decreased CO
3. Decreased response to a-adrenaergic stimulation in the periphery
4. Increased LV filling
5.

123. Steady-state 1st order kinetics have been reached when giving a drug by continuous infusion when:
1. Rate of elimination = rate of infusion
2. Kinetics change to zero order
3. two other choices we could n't remember
4.
5.

124. Which of the following is true of H2 blockers?
1. Lower LES tone
2. Decrease gastric motility
3. useful in asthma
4. ranitidine has longer half life than cimetidine
5. No major drug interactions

125. the fetal effects of long term propranolol therapy for pre-eclampsia include:
1. hypokalemia
2. hypothermia
3. hypoglycemia
4. hypotonia
5. Hypocalcemia

126. Advantages of LMA over face mask/airway include all of the following except:
1. Safe for use in full stomach
2. less nerve injury
3. hands are free
4. Better seal in edentulous patients.
5.

127. Which of the following is true with NO?

128. The final destination of impulse initiated in the left arm is:
1. thalamus
2. Right periaqueductal
3. Right post central
4. Left pre central
5. Dorsal horn

129. Naloxone given 2 ug/kg iv for narcotic-induced respiratory depression will:
1. Have no effect on pentazocine
2. Completely reverse all neuraxial effects
3. Rarely cause nausea and vomiting
4. Cause cardiac arrest
5. No neonatal effects

130. With regards to scavenging systems: ####not the same in 1997######
1. A passive system does not require a closed interface
1.
2. An active system requires an open interface
3. An open system requires valves
4. A passive or active system may have a valve and a reservoir bag.
5.

131. Which group of drugs most commonly cause allergic reactions under anaesthesia?
1. Opioids
2. Muscle relaxants
3. Anti emetics
4. Induction agents
5. Local anaesthetics

132. The appropriate treatment for neonatal hypoglycemia includes:
1. Should be given 20 mg/kg D10W
2. Hypoglycemia is glucose < 1.7 meq/L
3. D25 is preferable to D10
4. non-ketotic hyperosmolar coma is not a problem
5. Term baby that is small for GA is at less risk than pre-term

133. Desflurane's rapid onset is due to:
1. high vapour pressure
2. Low blood:gas partition coefficient
3. Low blood:tissue partition coefficient.
4.
5.

134. To reduce the incidence of retrolental fibroplasia, the sat should be kept at:
1. 95-98%
2. 86-92%
3. 75-80%
4. 60-70%
5. 50-60%

135. The most common fetal effect of 5 mg diazepam given to a parturient during labour is:
1. Decreased fetal heart rate variability
2. Decreased one minute Apgar
3. Hypotonia
4. Hypothermia
5. Late decelerations

136. What contributes most to inadvertent hypothermia under anaesthesia?
1. Room temperature fluids
2. Radiation
3. Evaporation
4. Conduction
5. Respiratory

137. Which cardiac lesion is associated with malignant carciniod?
1. AS
2. MR
3. Pulmonary stenosis
4. MS
5.

138. Absolute indications for double lumen tube include all except:
1. Thoracoscopy
2. Giant unilateral bulla
3. Pulmonary hemorrhage
4. Unilateral pulmonary lavage
5. Bronchopleural fistula

139. Which is true regarding neonatal caudals?
1. Do not advance needle more than 1 cm beyond sacrococcygeal membrane
2. Catheterisation not recommended in children < 5 yr
3. Need twice as high a dose of morphine compared to lumbar epidural
4. Hypotension common.
5.

140. Neonatal use of fentanyl:
1. Neonates more sensitive than older infants
2. Increased intraabdominal pressure slows clearance
3. 15 ug/kg provides anaesthesia for 60 min
4. Muscle rigidity is common
5. Longer t1/2 than in adults
6.
141. All are true of local anaesthetics except:
1. Increased lipid solubility impairs placental transfer
2. Mepivacaine is more potent than lidocaine because of mepivacaine's greater lipid solubulity
3. The closer the pKa of a local anaesthetic is to body pH, the easier it will cross the placenta.
4.
5.

142. All are true of prostacyclin except:
1. Made in the endothelium
2. Decreased amount in DM
3. vasodilator
4. t1/2 is one circulation time
5.

143. The following are all indications for immediate intubation in trauma except:
1. Shock with BP <60
2. C-spine fracture
3. GCS = 6
4. Airway obstruction
5. Tracheal toilet

144. Which of the following will increase laudonosine concentrations?
1. Liver failure
2. Renal failure
3. Decreased pseudocholinesterase
4.
5.

145. All of the following are contraindications to controlled hypotension in a pediatric patient except:
1. Hemoglobinopathy
2. Polycythemia
3. Anemia
4. Increased ICP
5. Steroid-dependent asthma

146. Neonatal CV physiology:
1. Hypoxemia most common cause of bradycardia
2. LV more compliant in neonates than adults
3. CO not very dependent on HR
4.
5.

147. Regarding epidural abscess, which is true?
1. Treated with antibiotics only
2. Most commonly associated with lumbar continuous epidural infusion
3. Most common organism is staph aureus
3.
4. Back pain is sometimes present
5.

148. All are detrimental effects of protamine except:
1. LV depression
2. Anaphylactic reaction
3. Systemic hypotension
4. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema
5.

149. All of the following are true of cancer chemotherapeutics except:
1. Most anti cancer drugs cause thrombocytopenia
2. Major toxicity of bleomycin is pulmonary
3. Adriamycin causes significant renal and pulmonary toxicity
4. Vincristine causes nervous system toxicity
5. Cyclophosphamide causes PGE inhibition

150. All of the following are associated with postoperative visual loss except:
1. N2O and SF6
2. Valsalva retinopathy
3. Corneal abrasion
4. Retinal artery thrombosis
5. Acute glaucoma

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Last updated Saturday, 23 July 2005 02:12 PM - Kerry Brandis, 2001