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Anaesthetic MCQ Collection TWO "The FRCP 1997 Collection" |
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page 251. Which is true regarding ventilation and perfusion in the normal, awake patient in the lateral decubitus position? 1. Ventilation is preferentially to the dependent lung and perfusion to the nondependent lung 2. Both are better to the dependent lung 3. Both are better to the nondependent lung 4. Ventilation is better to the nondependent lung and perfusion better to dependent lung 5. Ventilation and perfusion are distributed equally to both lungs 252. At 90% of TLC which is most responsible for the elastic recoil? 1. Chest wall 2. Diaphragm 3. Large mainstem bronchi 4. Alveolar air/liquid interface 5. Pulmonary parenchyma 253. All of the following are predictors of poor outcome following lung resection except 1. PA pressure of 45 mmHg following temporary occlusion 2. Pre-op RV/TLC = 0.6 3. Predicted post-op FEV1 = 1000 ml 4. PaCO2 = 48 (FiO2 = .21) 5. MBC = 60% 254. Which is true regarding the Mapleson D (Bain) circuit 1. Is a Mapleson E with a reservoir bag and a valve 2. Is more efficient with spontaneous than controlled ventilation 3. Pop off valve is near the patient 4. In pediatric patients a FGF of 200 cc/kg/min is required with controlled ventilation to maintain normocarbia 5. 100 cc/kg/min FGF is required to maintain normocarbia in spontaneous ventilation 255. Which of the following shifts the oxyhemoglobin curve to the left? 1. Acidosis 2. ? 2,3 DPG 3. Hyperthermia 4. Hypercarbia 5. Fetal Hb 256. Which is true regarding anaesthesia with an implanted pacemaker? 1. A magnet should be placed over the pacemaker prior to anaesthesia 2. Electrocautery ground pad should be close to the pacemaker 3. Evoked potentials nay cause the pacemaker to malfunction 4. Lithotripsy is relatively contraindicated 5. Ionizing radiation does not affect the pacemaker 1997 Additional 257. Which of the following is a feature of hyperkalemia (>5.0 mEq/L)? 1. Prominent u waves 2. prolonged QT 3. can be associated with dig toxicity 4. hypercalcemia potentiates hyperkalemia 5. no cardiac toxicity until K > 7.0 mEq/L 258. In a patient for excision of a large supratentorial tumour all of the following are appropriate managment except 1. mannitol 0.5 mg/kg (notice the units) 2. hyperventilate to an EtCO2 = 28 mmHg 3. drain 100 cc CSF via the lumbar drain 4. lasix 40 mg iv 5. thiopental infusion 259. Epidural anaesthesia may be beneficial in recent MI for all of the following reasons execpt 1. ? endocardial to epicardial flow ratio 2. ? myocardial contractility 3. ? LVEDP 4. ? LVESP 5. ? stress response to surgery 260. Triggers of the inducible porphyrias include all of the following except 1. phenytoin 2. barbiturates 3. diazepam 4. chlorpropamide 5. pancuronium 261. Which of the collowing will result in the greatest hemodynamic deterioration in a patient with IHSS? 1. ? preload 2. head down position 3. halothane 4. ? afterload 5. nodal rhythm 262. Optimal management of cardiac tamponade includes all of the following except 1. pericardiocentesis 2. volume 3. Vasopressors 4. inducing bradycardia 5. Spont ventilation 263. All of the following are features of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction except 1. bradycardia 2. dyspnea 3. chest pain 4. fever 5. chills 264. Which of the following is true concerning hypoxia in the neonate? 1. Bradycardia is most commonly secondary to hypoxia 2. neonates wiht hypoxia demonstrate transient tachypnea more commonly than apnea 3. 4. 5. 265. Which of the following is a benefit of the CO2 laser? 1. Decreased incidence of airway fires 2. no risk of eye damage to OR personnel 3. beam is easily visible to the surgeon 4. it is well absorbed by hemoglobin 5. causes little tissue edema 266. All of the following are potential complications of using protamine for reversal of heparin except 1. pulmonary hypertension 2. hypotension 3. non IgE mediated histamine release 4. myocardial depression 5. 267. Regarding EtCO2 monitoring 1. it is more specific than seeing the tube go through the cords for confirmation of intubation 2. continuous EtCO2 for 6 breaths indicates the ETT is in the trachea 3. a steady tracing indicates that the ETT is in correct placement 4. most useful in complete cardiac arrest 268. Which of the following increases drug transfer across the placenta? 1. Increased ionizattion 2. increased maternal/fetal serum gradient 3. decreased lipid solubility 4. increased protein binding 5. 269. Which of the following is a feature of ATN? 1. Urine osmolarity <300 2. urine osmolarity >500 3. urine sodium < 10 4. Specific gravity = 1.020 5. Urine/plasma creatinin ratio = 25:1 270. Which of the following is true regarding the arterial / EtCO2 gradient? 1. Resultsfrom R? L shunt via the thebesian and bronchial veins 2. equals 5 mmHg in the normal anaesthetized patient 3. caused by factors which increase perfusion to poorly ventilated alveoli 4. is a manifestation of the Haldane effect 5. 271. The addition of N2O and fentanyl may result in 1. myocardial depression 2. 3. 4. 5. 272. Prolonged infusion of syntocinon will cause which of the following? 1. Water retention 2. diarrhea 3. diuresis 4. hypotension 5. ventricular arrhythmias 273. Which is true regarding regional anaesthesia in infants compared with adults? 1. Addition of 1:200 000 epi to bupivicaine will prolong the effect in neonates more than adults 2. spinal tetracaine lasts longer in infants 3. block to T4 causes more hypotension in infants 4. ? incidence of bloody tap 5. best performed in the lateral position 274. Which is true of pulmonary function in the elderly? 1. MVV decreases to about 100 L/min 2. hypoxic and hypercarbic responses are unchanged 3. age related increase in closing volume 4. no significant change in PaO2 5. increased TLC 275. Which is true concerning perioperative acute renal failure? 1. Most common cause is aminoglycoside antibiotics 2. Fe Na is the most valuable tool in managing post operative renal failure 3. giving mannitol 1 g/kg prior to infrarenal cross clamp is the best way to prevent renal failure in AAA repair 4. mortality is less with nonoliguric compared to oliguric renal failure 5. if early dialysis is used, mortality is < 25% 276. Which is true of the patient with IDDM? 1. Increased gluconeogenesis 2. decreased lipolysis 3. increased protein catabolism 4. glucose transport into brain and liver is decreased 5. increased glycogen stores 277. Which of the following will result from an upper abdominal or thoracic incision? 1. No effect on diaphragmatic funtion 2. ? VC 3. ? FRC 4. 5. 278. All of the following are true regarding local anaesthetic toxicity except 1. Ropivicaine is less cardiotoxic than bupivicaine 2. acute respiratory acidosis decreases the threshold for bupivicaine toxicity 3. pregnant patients are more susceptible to bupivicaine cardiotoxicity than nonpregnant patients 4. bretylium is not effective for bupivicaine induced v-tach 279. All of the following are true regarding ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerve blocks in children except 1. can block both neves with one needle insertion medial to the ASIS 2. can't walk post-op due to block of the femoral nerve with this approach 3. good substitute for caudal in orchiopexy and hernia repair 4. ilioinguinal is a branch of L2 in the lumbar plexus 5. iliuohypogastric runs between the internal and external oblique muscles 280. What percentage of the neonates body weight is interstitial fluid? 1. 5% 2. 10-12% 3. 20-25% 4. 45% 5. 80% 281. What is the characteristic radiologic finding of lobar collapse? 1. Air bronchograms 2. reticulnodular shadowing 3. alveolar shadowing 4. hilar shift 5. Kerley B lines 282. Which is the most useful in treating life threatening hypermagnesemia in the pre-eclamptic patient? 1. Phenytoin 2. bretylium 3. procainamide 4. calcium gluconate 5. lidocaine 283. The carotid body predominantly senses which of the following? 1. PaCO2 1. 2. PaO2 3. arterial oxygen content 4. arterial blood pressure 5. pH 284. Pentothal in anaesthetic doses increases which of the following in a patient with raised ICP? 1. Cerebral perfusion pressure 2. cerebral blood flow 3. cerebral blood volume 4. intracranial pressure 5. cerebral oxygen consumption 285. Which of the following is true concerning metoprolol compared to propranolol? 1. Metoprolol is more lipophilic than propranolol 2. 20% of the drug is excreted unchanged in the urine 3. half life is 6 hours 4. has an oral bioavailability < 50 % 5. has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity 286. Which is true in a pregnant patient at 24 weeks gestation having an emergency open cholecystectomy? 1. There is no aorto-caval compression at this gestation 2. there is no increase in aspiration risk 3. N2O is teratogenic and should not be usee 4. materal hyperoxia will cause in utero retrolental fibroplasia 5. halothane use will decrease the risk of premature labour 287. The most sensitive means of detecting venous air embolism? 1. EtCO2 2. precordial doppler 3. precordial stethoscope 4. PCWP 5. CVP 288. An experiment fails to detect a difference between two treatments when a difference actually exists. What type of error is this describing? 1. Type I error 2. a error 3. ß error 4. Bonnefinne correction 5. null hypothesis 289. Platelets release all of the following except 1. PGI2 2. serotonin 3. ADP 4. thromboxane A2 5. vWF 290. Ringers lactate contains all of the following except 1. Na 130 mmol / L 2. Ca 3 mmol / L 3. lactate 28 mmol / L 4. chloride 108 mmol / L 5. K 10 mmol / L 291. Spinal anaesthesia in premature infants 1. no difference in post op apnea compared with halothane 2. no post operative respiratory observation required if < 44 weeks gestational age 3. 4. 5. 292. In which of the following will 5 ug / kg clonidine hae the least detrimental effects? 1. Alcohol withdrawal 2. hypovolemia 3. aortic stenosis 4. long standing therapy with verapamil ( ? Captopril) 5. 293. Diazepam 5 mg given to the labouring parturient will have which of the following effects on the fetus? 1. ? beat to beat variability 2. 3. 4. 5. 294. Flumazenil 10 ug / kg to reverse benzodazepine effects will cause all of the following except 1. resedation is possible 2. nausea and vomiting 3. rare incidence of withdrawal seizures 4. 5. 295. What percentage of adult GFR does a term neonate have? 1. 25% 2. 50% 3. 75% 4. 100% 5. 125% 296. Given a hypothetical gas with a blood gas coefficient of 2, what is the partial pressure in the blood given Patm = 760 mmHG and alveolar concentration = 1%? 1. 2 mmHg 2. 3.8 mmHg 3. 7.6 mmHg 4. 15.2 mmHg 5. 38 mmHg 297. The definition of dibucaine # is? 1. The % of inhibition of plasma cholinesterase 2. the temperatue in degrees celcius at which dibucaine will inhibit plasma cholinesterase 3. the time required to inhibit plasma cholinesterase 4. 5. 298. The cardiorespiratory effects of propofol in young healthy adults is? 1. ? SVR 2. ? CO 3. ? BP 4. ? HR 5. 299. Pulmonary vascular resistence is increased by which of the following? 1. PGE1 2. hypercarbia 3. bradykinins 4. 5. 300. Which manouevre in labour sould result in an improvement in cardiac function / hemodynamics in a patient with severe mitral stenosis? 1. Valsalva 2. pain 3. rapid fluid loading 4. beta blockade to reduce tachycardic rate 5. Next page |
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Last updated Saturday, 23 July 2005 02:13 PM - Kerry Brandis, 2001 |