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301. Which of the following is true of regional anaesthesia in the
upper extremity?
1. After brachial plexus block the arm should be abducted to allow
proximal spread
2. sensation returns first to the arm then to the hand
3. intercostal brachial does not need to be blocked to prevent tourniquet
pain following interscalene block
4. Response to nerve stimulator set at 1.5mAindicates intrasheath
placement of needle
4.
302. In critically ill patients NSAIDs effect the kidney by
1. inhibiting endogenous prostaglandins
2. ? free radical scavenging
3. ? atrial natriuretic peptide
4.
5.
303. In hypotension which of the following occurs at the kidneys?
1. Efferent vasoconstriction with masive alpha activity
2. medullary vasodlation with increased angiotensin II activity
3. increased aldosterone
4. Increased ADH
5. Increased ANF
304. Antibiotic prophylaxis is required in a patient undergoing
tonsillectomy with which of the following cardiac lesions?
1. A small isolated ASD
2. pacemaker
3. history of rhematic fever without valvular defects
4. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
5. ligated PDA 5 years ago
305. All of the following are true concerning TEE except
1. contraindicated in esophageal stricture
2. good for assessment of valvular function
3. provides accurate measurments of cardiac output
4.
5.
306. All of the following may be seen after liver vascular
reanastamosis except
1. myocardial depression
2. air embolism
3. hyperkalemia
4. hypercalcemia
5. Hyperglycemia
307. In IgA deficiency all are true except
1. incidence of 1:600
2. no risk of reaction with blood transfusion
3. frequently experience upper respiratory infections
4. blood products are usually readily available
5. Have circulating IgE and IgM antibodies
308. Amiodarone
1. short t 1/2
2. must be given on the morning of surgery
3. may cause pulmonary interstitial fibrosis
4. may cause nightmares (sleep disturbance)
5. Is a membrane stabilizing agent
309. Concerning outpatient pediatric surgery in premies
1. ASA I,II, and III may be acceptable
2. more nausea and vomit is surgery < 20 min
3. do not required hospitsal admission if < 3 months post natal age
4. must be admitted after cystoscopy
5.
310. The LIMA is a branch of the
1. left subclavian artery
2. Left brachcephalic artery artery
3. Left vertebral artery
4. Aortic arch
5. Innominate artery
311. The incidence of ipsilateral diaphragmatic paralysis in Winnie's
interscalene block is?
1. 5%
2. 10%
3. 25%
4. 50%
5. 100%
5.
312. Which of the following will increase regional hypoxic pulmonary
vasoconstriction
1. nitroglycerin
2. dopamine
3. salbutamol
4. hypercarbia
5. isoproterenol
313. All of the following may predispose to dangerous elevations in K
following sux except
1. Duschenne's
2. cerebral palsy
3. progressive neuromuscular disease
4. 2 weeks post burn (60% BSA)
5. dermatomyositis
314. All of the following will increase R? L shunt except
1. epidural to T8
2. hypoxia
3. isoflurane
4. ketamine induction of 2 mg/kg
5.
315. Which of the following block sites is associated with the
greatest serum uptake of local anaesthetic?
1. Brachial plexus
2. intercostal
3. caudal / epidural
4. subcutaneous
5. femoral
316. Regarding the neonatal respiratory system
1. alveolar maturity occurs by 2 yrs of age
2. cricoid ring in the larynx is the most important deterninant of airway
resistance
3. ? total lung compliance
3.
4. FRC is low and increases yearly to a max at 3 yrs
5. airway obstruction during sleep is caused by relaxation of the
genioglossus muscle
317. In carotid endarterectomy, the least specific indicator of
decreased cerbral blood flow is
1. SSEP
2. EEG
3. stump pressure
4. awake patient
5. transcranial doppler
318. The majority of CO2 is transport in the blood in which form?
1. Bicarb in RBCs
2. bicarb in plasma
3. carbonic acid
4. dissolved in plasma
5. carbamino compounds
319. Which is the most common valvular lesion in carcinoid syndrome?
1. AS
2. AR
3. PS
4. MS
5. MR
320. Which of the following occurs when changing from the supine to
the upright position in the anaesthetized patient?
1. ? BP
2. ? SV
3. ? CO
4. ? SVR
5. no change in right atrial pressure
321. Which opioid receptor causes respiratory depression?
1. Mu 1
2. mu 2
2.
3. kappa
4. delta
5. sigma
322. Which of the following is characteristic of mild AS?
1. Aortic pulse pressure < 50 mmHg
2. LVSP up to 300 mmHg
3.
4.
5.
323. Which of the following is true concerning the importance of
brown fat metabolism in infants?
1. It is not affected by surgical or pharmacologic sympathectomy
2. it is the only form of heat production under anaesthesia
3. it decreases O2 requirements
4. the infants size affects its ability to thermoregulate
5.
324. In uremia you may expect to see an increase in which of the
following?
1. PTT
2. INR
3. bleeding time
4. platelet count
5. ACT
325. In whole blood which of the following will no longer be
therapeutic after 2 weeks of storage?
1. V
2. VIII
3. VII
4. platelets
5. fibrinogen
326. A patient with a firm goiter, elevated Ca++,
elevated calcitonin, and BP = 210/110 is having a bleeding ulcer
repaired. Anaesthesia is
adequate. What is the
appropriate treatment of the the hypertension?
1. hydralazine
2. Propranolol
3. hismanal
4. increasing the depth of anaesthesia
5. phentolamine
327. In hyperthyroidism which of the following drugs will decrease
the release of thyroid hormone from the gland?
1. PTU
2. K iodide
3. mthimazole
4. propranolol
5. I 131
328. Which of the following is true in RSD?
1. IV guanethidine inhibits NE release
2. stellate ganglion block is equally effective as IV sympathetic block
3. IV bretylium causes transient increases in NE followed by NE depletion
4. po sympatholytics have proven ineffective
5. ? IV phentolamine
MORE QUESTIONS
ANATOMY
The dorsal penile nerves are:
1. Within the corpora cavernosa
2. Deep to Buck's fascia
3. Superficial to the symphysis pubis
4. Innervate the entire length of the penis
5. Are at the lateral borders of the penis
Laryngeal innervation, all are true EXCEPT
1. all intrinsic muscles supplied by recurrent laryngeal
2. sensation above cords innervated by sup laryngeal
Afferent nerve to carotid sinus
1. glossopharyngeal
2. vagus
Structure most commonly injured in mediastinoscopy
1. innominate artery
2. innominate vein
3. recurrent laryngeal nerve
Landmarks for interscalene brachial plexus block include all EXCEPT:
1. Sternoclinoidmastoid
2. Interscalene groove
3. C6 transverse process
4. Subclavian artery
5. Cricoid cartilage
Which lobe of lung has apical, anterior, and posterior segments?
1) Right upper lobe
2) Right lower lobe
3) Left upper lobe
4) Lingula
5) Left lower lobe
Musculocutaneous nerve
1) Supplies medial part of the forearm
2) Exits at interscalene groove
3) From posterior division of brachial plexus
4) Blocked 5 cm proximal to anticubital fossa
CARDIAC
Contraindication to IABP:
1. Coronary thrombolytic Tx
2. Unfolded thoracic arch
3. Left main disease
4. Aortic insufficiency
5. Renal insufficiency
Which agent is most likely to increase cyanosis in Tetralogy of Fallot?
1. Nitroprusside
2. Phenylephrine
3. Ephedrine
4. Norepinephrine
5. Calcium
In which of the following circumstance does PCWP underestimate LVEDP?
1. Mitral stenosis
2. Atrial myxoma
3. Noncompliant LV
4. Tachycardia
5. VSD
Characteristic of myocardial contusion - All are true, EXCEPT
1) Chest pain not relieved by nitro.
2) New onset LBBB
3) Dysrhythmias
Concerning RV and LV physiology:
1. A RVEDP is decreased on inspiration
2. Relative to RV, LV is more compliant in diastole
3. The Starling curve of the RV is upward and left of the LV
4. LVEDP/volume relationship is a good assessment of inotropic state
5. In normal heart the relationship between LVEDP and volume is linear
In mild aortic stenosis, expect to find
1. Decreased stroke volume
2. Valve area < 0.7 sq cm
3. LV end-systolic pressure up to 300 mm Hg
4. Pulse pressure < 50 mm Hg
5. Eccentric LV hypertrophy
Most likely cause of left axis deviation:
1. LBBB
2. Marked ascites
3. LPHB
4. Cor pulmonale
5. Mitral stenosis
Which most like to have decreased myocardial perfusion?
1) Constrictive cardiomyopathy
2) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Effect of cross-clamping on infra-renal aorta in a healthy patient with
good LV function, all are true, EXCEPT:
1. decreased CO
2. VO2 decreased
3. Decreased CVP
4. Collateral vessel run off decrease hemodynamic changes
5. Increased LV afterload
In the ACLS treatment of
supraventricular tachycardia the first line of treatment during stable
blood pressure is
1) Cardioversion
2) Verapamil
3) Beta blocker
4) Adenosine
ECG findings with pulmonary hypertension include all EXCEPT:
1. P pulmonale
2. Right axis deviation
3. Right ventricular hypertrophy
4. RBBB
5. Biphasic p's in V6
Which increases oxygen demand the most?
1) Increased heart rate
2) Volume work
3) Myocardial wall tension
4) Stroke volume
When inserting a CVP line, can use ECG to fix position of catheter.
If catheter is in mid Right atrium - ie correct position you will
see:
1. positive p wave becomes negative
2. biphasic p wave
3. negative p becomes positive
4. large s wave
5. inverted t wave
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