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1. PaC02 to EtC02 not increased by :
A. gas emboli
B. COPD
C. atelectasis
D. fat embolism
2. Which is contradindicated in a TET spell ?
A. B-blocker
B. Ca channel blocker
C. manual compression of abdominal aorta
D. general anesthetic
E. alpha - 1 agonist
3. What is the 02 consumption ?
Hb = 100, CO = 5 L /
min, Sa02 = 100 %, Sv02 = 40 %
A. 200 cc / min
B. 250 cc / min
C. 300 cc / min
D. 400 cc / min
E. cannot calculate
4. Phenol in glycine for neurolytic blockade:
A. is hypobaric compared to CSF
B. agent of choice for celiac plexus blocks
C. lasts 8-10 years
D. higher affinity for vascular tissue than neural tissue
5. Landmark for T-7 vertebrae in sitting position:
A. angle of Louis
B. iliac crest
C. superior border of scapula
D. spines of scapula
E. inferior border of scapula
6. Hematologists suggest DDAVP pre-op for patient with history of gum /
dental bleeding . What disease does patient likely have :
A. von Willebrands type 1
B. Factor Xlll deficiency
C. Hemophillia B
D. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
7. Location of intercostal nerve block
A. superior border of rib
B. before artery and vein join in
C. posterior angle of rib
D. prior to sympathetics joining in
8. Anesthetized patient’s
position is changed from supine to sitting:
What is the cardiovascular effect.
A. decreased RAP
B. increased SVR
C. decreased CO
9. Hyperkalemia
A. cardiac toxicity only when > 7.0
B. U waves
C. occurs with respiratory alkalosis
D. more worse with hypercalcemia
E. associated with digoxin toxicity
10.
Which of the following PBF
> SBF
A. TOF
B. Ebstein’s + PFO
C. TGV +
Pulmonic stenosis
D. PDA
E. coarctation
11. IM morphine
A. peak concentration varies little
B. time to peak 4 - 8 hours
C. duration 3 - 4 hours
D. concentration stable secondary to slow release
E. concentration independant of blood flow
12 Least likely to
increase dead space
A. decrease cardiac output
B. increase tidal volume
C. amniotic fluid
D. anemia
E. PEEP
13. Respiratory depression
A. mu one
B. mu two
C. delta
D. kappa
E. sigma
14. Most likely to cause angina with normal coronaries:
A. constrictive pericarditis
B.
C. carcinoid
D. LA myxoma
E. IHSS
15. Coumadin rapidly corrects
A. DDAVP
B. FFP
C. cryoprecipitate
D. vitamin K deficiency
E. protamine
16. Posterior fossa, sitting position, bradycardia, BP falls to 60 / 34,
Sp02 98 % ,
CVP 4
doppler O.K. , EtC02
falls from 30 to 26…. Initial therapy:
A. aspirate from CVP
B. position head lower than heart
C. phenylephrine 50 mcgs
D. 500 ml saline
17. Adenosine
A. converts a-fib to sinus
B. potentiated by methlyxanthines
C. reduced by dipyrimadole
D. hyperpolarizes cell membrane
E. inactivated by PC
18. A two year old, 15 kg
child for hernia repair. Case
booked for 12 noon. Acceptable
NPO guidelines:
A. NPO after bed time
B. light breakfast before 0900 a.m.
C. no solid food after 2400 midnight, clear fluids until 0900
a.m.
D. full feeds until 0900 a.m.
E. clear fluids from bedtime until 0600 a.m.
19. Narcotic with smallest Vd
A. alfentanil
B. sufentanil
C. fentanyl
D. morphine
E. meperidine
20. Addition of 0 . 75 % isoflurane to N20 / 02 anesthetic for C / S :
A. increaes bleeding
B. neonatal depression
C. hypotensioin
D. decreases maternal awareness
21. Best measure of Ig-E anaphylaxis :
A. patch test
B. skin prick
C. RAST test
D. eosinophil degranulation test
22 . C02 in blood is mostly
in the form of :
A. bicarb in plasma
B. carbamino Hg
C. H2C03
23. Sign of addiction in colleague
A. refusal to work on call
B. likes to work with residents
C. meticulous charting
D. refuses to relieve colleagues
E. insists on giving narcotics in PACU personally
24 . Which of the following
are not side effects of epidural morphine :
A. N & V
B. pruritus
C. respiratory depression
D. hives
E. urinary retention
25. Which is not a sign of brain stem anesthesia ?
A. hypertension
B. tinnitus
C. increased HR
26. Which is not a side effect of protamine ?
A. myocardial depression
B. non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema
C. hypotension
D. anaphylaxis
27. Lt. Sided DLT’s are more commonly used because:
A. Rt. double cuffs are more likely to rupture
B. Better ventilation due to anomolous Rt. upper lobe take off
C. endobronchial lumen is bigger for left sided tube
D. intubation is easier
E. take off of LUL bronchus is further from carina than RUL
take off
28. Acute cardiovascular effects of smoking
A. dec. rate-pressure product
B. inc. viscosity
C. dec. platelet adhesiveness
D. dec. 02 transport
E. nicotine induced coronary steal
29. 0.1 MAC Halothane depresses most
A. HPV
B. brainstem auditory evoked potentials
C. cerebrovascular response to C02
D. ventilatory response to C02
E. ventilatory response to 02
30. Infra-renal aortic X-clamp with normal LV and normal coronaries:
A. inc. PAP
B. inc. CVP
C. inc. PCWP
D. dec. CO
E. no change in MAP
31. Effect of induction dose of thiopental
A. clinically significant histamine release with
thiobarbiturates
B. main hemodynamic effect is dec. SVR
C. dose related dec. cerebral 02 metabolism up to 90 %
D. no change in IOP
E. not shown to help cardiac arrest patients WRT to cerebral
protection
32. Brachial plexus—which nerves leaves superior trunk before bifurcates
to anterior and posterior cords
A. long thoracic
B. median
C. axillary
D. subscapular
E. suprascapular
33. Best indicator of LV pre-load
A. LVEDP
B. LVEDV
C. CVP
D. PCWP
E. PA diastolic
34. Addition of HC03 to local anesthetic:
A. inc. ionized fraction
B. may precipitate
C. dec. pC02
D. inc. time to onset
E. no change in pH
35. Pediatric outpatient surgery:
A. ASA l, ll, or lll may be acceptable
B. cystoscopy must be admitted
C. inc. nausea with procedures less than 20 minutes
D. longer to awaken with midazolam pre-med v.s. morphine
E. O.K. for premies if 3 months post natal age
36. Celiac plexus location
A. performed at L1
B. surrounds IVC
C. lateral to kidneys
D. posterior to crus of diaphragm
E. anterior to pancreas
37. What is normal ICP?
A. 8 mmHg
B. 12
C. 16
D. 20
E. 24
38. What is most common complication in PACU
A. N & V
B. shivering
C. dec. P02
D. saturation < 90 %
E. hypotension
39. What is the innervation of the 5 th toe
A. saphenous
B. sural
C. tibial
D. deep peroneal
E. superficial peroneal
40. 2 y.o. 15 kg child had VSD repaired 1 year ago. Now presents for cardiac cath. Which is true:
A. no prophylaxis is needed
B. oral Amox 50 mg / kg pre-op
C. IV amp 50 mg / kg pre-op
D. something to cover staph aureus
41. What decreases MAC the most
A. prematurity
B. hypthermia
C. hypocarbia
D. hypothyroidism
E. chronic EtOH abuse
42. What is mechanism of inc. PaC02 in chronic COPD on Fi02 of 1.0
A. V / Q mis-match
B. Haldane effect
C. dec. hypoxic pulmonary drive
D. hypoxia
43. Which pulm function values are found in geriatric population
A. dec. response to hypercarbia
B. inc. VC
44. What is 02 carrying capacity, Hb = 80 g / L , Sa02 = 100 %, Pa02 = 300
mm Hg
A. 14 g / dl
B. 12
C. 6
D. 18
E. 7
45. What is the Meyer-Overton theory
A. explains why N20 expands in an enclosed space
B. explains additive effect of inhaled anesthetics and
narcotics
C. relates potency of anesthetic gases to their solubility
46. A patient with PAC inserted is undergoing a Rt. thoracotomy.
Turned Lt. Decubitus and Rt. lung deflated.
Which is true.
A. PAC is in zone 3
B. wedge accurately reflects LAP
C. wedge will increase when CPAP applied to non-dependent lung
D. PAC will be in dependent lung
E. cardiac output will be over estimated
47. During a carotid endarterectomy, which is the least sensitive
indicator of cerebral blood flow.
A. EEG
B. stump pressures
C. transcranial dopler
D. SSEP’s
E.
48. Which laryngeal muscle is responsible for abduction of the vocal
cords.
A. cricothyroid
B. thyroepiglottic
C. posterior cricoarytenoid
D. lateral cricoarytenoid
49. Following a Rt. pneumonectomy a patient develops a broncho-pleural
fistula. Which method of lung
isolation is most appropriate.
A. Univent tube
B. regular ETT
C. Lt. DLT
D. Rt. DLT
50. Which is the best indication for a double lumen tube.
A. broncho-pleural fistula
B. thoracoscopy
C. open lung biopsy
D.
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