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51. Which is true regarding renal physiology.
A. 30 % of H20 reabsorbed in proximal tubule
B. descending loop is impermeable to water
C. ascending loop actively transports chloride out of the
tubule
D. ADH makes collecting ducts impermeable to H20
E. ADH makes proximal tubule permeable to H20
52. What is the correct dose of naloxone for a neonate.
A. 1 ug / kg
B. 10
C. 100
D. 1000
53. What are the side effects of using naloxone.
A.
54. In order to get a good block for shoulder surgery, you need.
A. C 3-7
B. C 5-8
C. C 3-6, and T 1-2
D. C 3-8 and T 1-2
55. What is the appropriate Rx. of anaphylaxis with decreased BP and
increased HR
A. phenylephrine is better than ephedrine
B. epinephrine to get vasoconstriction
C. corticosteroids
D. H-2 blockers
56. What is the most common cause of nephrogenic DI
A. anoxic encephalopathy
B. brain death
C. miningitis
D. fluride toxicity
E. SIADH
57. Bolus doses of atracurium:
A. cause a drop in BP with cummulative effects
B. decreased excretion in renal failure
C. rely on hepatic metabolism for clearance
58. In the primary survey following severe thoracic injury, one
should immediately diagnose and treat:
A. pulmonary contusion
B. cardiac contusion
C. tracheobronchial disruption
D. tension pneumothorax
E. esophageal injury
59. Which is true regarding tic douloureaux?
A. highest incidence in V1,V2 dermatomes
B. burning pain
C. absent corneal reflex
D. carbamazepine works almost immediately
E. hemifacial flushing
60. To what organ is the percentage of cardiac output greater
in the neonate vs the adult?
A. brain
B. heart
C. kidneys
D. liver
E. muscle
61. What effects does isoflurane have on spontaneous
ventilation?
A. decrease RR and decrease in Vt
B. increase RR and decrease in Vt
C. increase in RR and increase in Vt
D. increase in RR and increase in Vt
62. Temperature sensation is carried by which nerve fibres?
A. A alpha
B. A beta
C. A gamma
D. B
E. C
63. Regarding caudal block in children:
A. the needle should not be advanced > 1 cm
B. continuous catheter is not recommended in children < 5
years
C. lateral decubitus is preferred for infants < 50 weeks
64. What is the percentage of total body water in the neonate?
A. 40
B. 60
C. 75
D. 90
E. 92
65. How do local anaesthetics exert their effect?
A. increase repolarization of membrane
B. decrease membrane potential
C. increase in chloride ion conductance
D. inhibit conformational change in Na channel
66. What is the change in [H+] if the pH changes from pH 6.38
--> 7.37?
A. decrease 100 fold
B. decrease 1 fold
C. increase 10 fold
D. decrease 10 fold
E. decrease 100 fold
67. Concerning epidural opioids:
A. increase side effects with continuous infusion vs bolus
B. increase analgesia with bolus vs infusion
C. increase distention in epidural space increases systemic
absoption
D. epidural morphine, 20% crosses into subarachnoid space
E. a more hydrophilic agent has a faster onset
68. Epidural steroids in low back pain:
A. have affect at neuraxial and perineural sites
B. no problem if injected intrathecal
C. no effect on radicular pain
69. An increase in intravascular volume is seen with which of
the following conditions?
A. secondary increase
in aldosterone
B. pheochromocytoma
C. SIADH
D. hyperthyroidism
70. Which of the following alpha 1 agonists has venous >
arterial activity?
A. phenylephrine
B. norepinephrine
C. methoxamine
D. isoproterenol
71. A diving bell ascend from 3 to 2 atmospheres; the glottis
is closed. What will happen
to the volume of the lungs.
A. increase 25%
B. decrease 50%
C. increase 50%
D. increase 60%
E. increase 100%
72. The dosage for midazolam as an oral premedicant is children
is:
A. 0.05 mg/kg
B. 0.5 mg/kg
C. 0.1 mg/kg
D. 0.01 mg/kg
E. 0.2 mg/kg
73. ECG monitoring. When
comparing monitor mode vs diagnostic mode, which of the following is true?
A. the lowest frequency of monitor mode is lower than the
lowest frequency of diagnostic
mode
B. the band width of monitor mode is greater than that of
diagnostic mode
C. the low frequency of monitor mode reduces artifact from
skeletal muscle
D. the high frequency of diagnostic mode reduces the effect of
poor ECG lead contact
E. ST segment elevation is greater in monitor mode than
diagnostic mode
74. A gas with a blood:gas partition coefficient of 2:1 and an alveolar
concentration of 1% is
in equilibrium with venous blood; what is the partial pressure
of the gas in venous blood?
A. 3.3 mmHg
B. 7.6 mmHg
C. 15.2 mmHg
D. 22.8 mmHg
75. In a 4 year old patient with subglottic stenosis reduced
from 4mm diameter to 3 mm diameter:
A. cross-sectional area is reduced by 25%
B. N2O/O2 mixture is helpful
C. He/O2 mixture is helpful
D. recemic epinephrine is helpful
76. With IHSS which of the following will significantly
decrease CO?
A. Trendelenberg position
B. Halothane
C. Increasing afterload
D. volume loading
E. nodal rhythm
77. Which will worsen MVP?
A. phenylephrine
B. propranolol
C. rocuronium
D. fentanyl
E. droperidol
78. Which differentiates PACs with aberancy from PVCs?
A. LBBB
B. QRS > 0.14 ms
C. non-compensatory pause
D. abnormal initial deflection of QRS
E. absent P waves
79. Which is most important determinant of cardiac MVO2?
A. HR
B. systolic wall tension
C. maintenance of cellular integrity
D. action potential initiation and propagation
E. volume work (myocardial fibre shortening)
80. What is Vd? (70 kg man receives 1000 mg bolus of drug.
Graph showing ug/ml on y-axis, time on x-axis. Straight line extrapolates
to 50 ug/ml at time 0.)
A. 12.5 l
B. 20 l
C. 25 l
D. 40 l
E. 100 l
81. Where is muscarinic R stimulation seen?
A. parasympathetic ganglion synapse
B. sympathetic ganglion synapse
C. myocardial pre-synaptic
D. post-synaptic adrenal gland
E. post-synaptic NMJ
82. 20 cc of 2% lidocaine Femoral nerve block at inguinal
ligament blocks where?
A. lateral thigh
B. anteromedial thigh
C. posterior knee (popliteal fossa)
D. lateral foot
E. medial knee
83. Autonomic Hyperreflexia characteristics
A. hypertension and bradycardia
B. hypertension and tachycardia
C. hypotension and bradycardia
D. hypotension and tachycardia
E. hypertension then hypotension
84. Which is least likely to be problematic during ECT?
A. intracranial mass
B. stroke < 3 months
C. pregnancy
D. pheochromocytoma
E. pacemaker
85.. Which will increase IOP?
A. decreasing PaCO2 to 30 mmHg
B. STP 5 mg/kg
C. pancuronium
D. decreasing SBP to 60 mmHg
E. N2O with sulfahexafluoride
86. Goals of carotid endarterectomy under GA include all EXCEPT
A. normal BP
B. mild hyperglycemia
C. rapid post-op intubation
D. minimal pre-op sedation
E. PaCO2 35-40 mmHg
87. 35 wk pregnant female with initial BP 240/120 with HR 140.
After waiting 1.5 hours for blood work, BP now 140/100 with HR 100. What
is diagnosis?
A. cocaine intoxication
B. pregnancy induced HTN
C. pre-eclampsia
88. What is characteristic radiologic finding of
lobar collapse?
A. air bronchograms
B. reticulonodular shadows
C. alveolar shadows
D. hilar shift
E. Kerley B lines
89. Which will NOT increase risk of ocular damage with
retrobulbar block?
A. superonasal gaze
B. sharp long-bevelled needle
C. deeper penetration
D. short axial length]
E. previous scleral buckle
90. Common signs/symptoms of sleep apnea include:
A. hypovolemia
B. hypotension
C. polycythemia
D. L sided failure
91. Which is true for brachial plexus block?
A. arm should be abducted post block to facilitate spread
B. sensation returns first to arm then hand
C. intercostobrachial N does not need to be blocked to prevent
tourniquet pain
D. nerve stimulation @ 1.5 mA will indicate intrasheath needle
placement
92. 15 pieces of electrical equipment each will 200 microamp
leak. Voltage 120 V
A. resistance is (?6 ohms)
B. LIM (set at 2 mA) will not alarm
C. system cannot be made safe
D. leakage current is 3 mA
93. At which lung volume is PVR lowest?
A. RV
B. FRC
C. TLC
D. CC
94. Comparing neonate vs adult
A. higher PaCO2
B. higher CO2 production
C. higher FRC
D. higher VC
E. higher Vt
95. Post-partum when do gastric volume, pH and motility return
to normal?
A. 3-4 d
B. 7-14 d
C. 3-4 wk
D. 6 wk
E. with involution of uterus
96. While clipping cerebral aneurysm @ 1 MAC Iso, surgeon
requests isoelectic EEG. Most appropriate is:
A. STP 30 mg/kg
B. mannitol 0.5 mg/kg
C. increase Iso to 2 MAC
D. nimodipine (? dose)
E. propofol 10 mg/kg
97. Intra-op post massive transfusion, a coagulopathy develops.
Which is most likely?
A. prolonged hypotension (ie secondary to)
B. Von Willebrands disease
C. citrate toxicity
D. transfusion reaction
E. platelets greater
than 100 000
98. During posterior fossa resection in sitting position BP
drops to 60/35, bradycardia develops. Doppler shows no change. What to do?
A. tell surgeons to stop retracting brainstem
B. lower patient flat
C. volume load
D. aspirate air from CVL
E. give phenylephrine
99. Kid (? age) post VSD repair now for heart cath. RE
antibiotic prophylaxis:
A. none required
B. Amoxil 50 mg/kg po pre-op
C. Ampicillin 50 mg/kg iv pre-op
100. In Calgary (barometric P 660 mmHg) after 2 h @ 1.25% on
vapourizer dial, vapour analyzer reads 0.9 MAC. Which vapour is being
used?
A. halothane
B. Isofluorane
C. enflurane
D. sevoflurane
E. desflurane
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