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101. Most common complication of transtracheal jet ventilation:
A. pneumothorax
B. subcutaneous emphysema
C. mediastinal emphysema
D. esophageal rupture
E. arterial rupture
102. When is the PAWP
less than LVEDP:
A. atrial myxoma
B. acute aortic regurgitation
C. pericarditis
D. cardiac tamponade
E. tachyarrythmia
103. With respect to Hepatitis A infection:
A. associated with a prolonged viremia
B. associated with a chronic carrier state
C. transmitted by blood transfusion
D. not associated with a chronic carrier state
104. Which of the following is true in RSD:
A. IV guanethidine inhibits NE release
B. stellate ganglion block is equally effective as IV
sympathetic block
C. IV bretylium causes transient increases in NE followed by NE
depletion
D. PO sympatholytics proven ineffective
105. NIOSH guidelines for limit of N2O exposure:
A. time weighted 8 hours of 10 ppm
B. time weighted 8 hours of 25 ppm
C. time weighted 8 hours of 50 ppm
D. 50 ppm per day
E. 100 ppm per case
106. Following
an interscalene brachial plexus block, which nerve is not well blocked:
A. median nerve
B. ulnar nerve
C. radial nerve
D. musculocutaneous nerve
E. axillary nerve
107. Normal ICP range:
A. 5-10
B. 10-15
C. 25-40
D. 20-30
E. 20-40
108. Which of the following is consistent with
pheochromocytoma:
A. decreased red cell mass
B. decreased hematocrit
C. decreased intravascular volume
109. In a diabetic, autonomic neuropathy is predicted by the
presence of:
A. decrease in blood pressure on Valsalva maneuver
B. CAD
C. orthostatic hypotension
110. Regarding ventilation and perfusion in a spontaneously
breathing pt in the lateral decubitus position:
A. ventilation preferentially to dependent lung and perfusion
to nondependent lung
B. bother preferentially to dependent lung
C. both preferentially to non-dependent lung
D. ventilation preferentially to nondependent lung and
perfusion to dependent lung
E. ventilation and perfusion equally distributed to both lungs
111. Which of the following opioids has a toxic metabolite:
A. morphine
B. meperidine
C. codeine
D. fentanyl
E. alfentanil
111. Which of the following is true in regards to a pt with an
epidural abscess:
A. treatment is antibiotics only
B. most common organism is staph aureus
C. back pain is not a common finding
D. most commonly associated with lumbar continuous epidural
infusion
112. What is true regarding NO:
A. found exclusively in the vascular endothelium
B. only 1 type of isoenzyme for nitric oxide synthetase
C. inflammatory mediator in ischemic injury
D. metabolism not decreased by hypoxia
E. mediates the effects of nitroglycerin
113. A man on Parnate comes into emerg with discomfort and is
treated with meperidine. Subsequently, he develops a severe headache with
photophobia. Vitals: HR 50, RR 20, BP 220/110. Treatment for this:
A. propranolol
B. verapamil
C. phentolamine
D. hydralazine
E. naloxone
114. A pt with a pacemaker set at DVIP has the following:
A. ventricularly paced
B. double sensed
C. ventricle is triggered
D. ventricle is inhibited by an intrinsic beat
E. atrium and ventricle are asynchronously paced
115. Old man for hip surgery; post-op has the following urine:
hyaline membrane, slight proteinuria, urine osmol 600 and urine Na
excretion of 0.8mEq/24hrs. This
is caused by:
A. fluoride nephrotoxicity
B. renal ischemia
C. hypovolemia
D. aminoglycoside nephrotoxicity
116. Which is true of a pt on inverse ratio ventilation:
A. long expiratory phase
B. can potentially develop autopeep
C. cannot be done with a pressure-controlled ventilation
117. Why is needlestick injury with Hep C less harzardous than Hep B ?
A. not associated with chronic carrier state
B. not associated with hepatocellular carcinoma
C. seroconversion rate < 4 %
D. immune globuline is effective
118. Why is ketamine preferred for induction with congenital cardiac
disease
A. less increase in cyanosis induced pulm. vascular
constriction
B. incidence of daydreams is only 25 - 30 %
C. laryngeal reflexes reliably obtunded
D. cardiac output is maintained by reducing afterload
119. Occulocardiac reflex
A. blocked 100 % by atropine
B. blocked 100 % with atropine and halothane
C. made worse by sux
D. is a trigeminal - vagal reflex
E. thiopental is effective in reversing the bradycardia
120. Whole blood stored > 2 weeks, what would be decreased to levels
less than required for hemostatic effect
A. V
B. Vll
C. Vlll
D. platelets
E. fibrinogen
121. What is anatomical location of celiac plexus
A. anterior to pancreas
B. anterior to L 1 vertebral body
C. lateral to kidneys and adrenals
D. wrapped around inferior vena cava
E. posterior to crus of diaphragm
122. What separates high pressure system from low pressure system in
anesthetic machine
A. DISS
B. second stage regulator
C. flow meter valves
D. machine outlet check valve
E. fresh gas flow outlet
123. Renal changes in response to hypoperfusion
A. efferent vasoconstriction with severe alpha adrenergic input
B. medullary vasodilation with angiotension ll release
C. ADH mediated medullary vasoconstriction
D. increased oxygen consumption in thick ascending loop of
Henle
124. 70 y.o. male with renal failure on chronic hemodialysis sustains a
closed head injury. GCS = 7. Which
will MOST effective in acutely reducing his ICP
A. hyperventilation
B. mannitol
C. furosemide
D. thiopental infusion
125. Changes associated with aging
A. decreased stroke volume
B. increased intra-cellular water
C. increased sensitivity to baroreceptors.
D. increased MAC requirements
E. increased closing volume
126. Regarding epidural opioids
A. need more than twice the dose for a caudal v.s. lumbar
injection
B. compared to infusion, bolus dose gives less side effects
C. compared to infusion, bolus dose gives better analgesia
D. more than 20 % of epidural morphine reaches the CSF
E. epidural venous congestion increases systemic absorption
127. At 90 % FRC, which is most responsible for lung recoil
A. chest wall
B. lung parenchyma
C. lung surface / air tension
128. Neonate % GFR compared to adults
A. 10
B. 25
C. 60
D. 75
E. 100
129. Non-shivering thermogenesis
A.
B. factors related to infant’s size
C. decreased 02 consumption
D. it is only method of thermoregulation under anaesthesia
130. What is major source of heat loss during anesthesia
A. evaporation
B.
C. IV fluids at room temperature
D. radiation
E. convection
131. Clipping of MCA aneurysm—bleeding – surgeon requests hypotension.
A. increase MAC isoflurane
132. What regional anesthetic technique for TKA with use of tourniquet
A. femoral N plus lateral femoral cutaneous N
B. psoas compartment block
+ ….
C. lumbar plexus +
…
D. transgluteal sciatic block + lumbar plexus + obturator N
133. Which factor decreased in pregnancy.
A. l
B. Vll
C. Vlll
D. lX
E. Xlll
134. Dental damage during anesthesia:
A. Incidence is 1/10,000 cases.
B. Greater than 50% of cases occur at extubation.
C. Greater than 50% of cases occur during intubation or during
emergent surgery.
D. It is more common to dislodge loose teeth than to chip or
damage teeth.
E. The lower right central incisor is the most commonly
damaged.
135. In anesthetized adults a gradient in PaCO2 to EtCO2 of five:
A. Is due to the Haldane effect.
B. Is due to right to left shunting of blood
C. Is normal in health people.
D. Is due to bronchial arteries and Thebesian veins.
136. In comparing propofol to STP during induction:
A. There is less burning in peripheral veins
B. There is less hypotension
C. There is more tachycardia
D. There is a shorter duration of apnea
E. Coughing and hiccups are uncommon
137. An anesthetist in Calgary (Pb 660 mmHg) is giving an
oxygen/vapour anesthetic and sets the dial at 1.25%. Two hours later the end tidal monitor reads 0.9 MAC.
What vapour was used?
A. Halothane
B. Enflurane
C. Isoflurane
D. Desflurane
E. Sevoflurane
138. Giving a 0.1% halothane/O2 anesthetic has the greatest
effect on which of the following?
A. Pa02
B. Ventilatory response to hypoxia
C. Cerebrovascular response to CO2
D. Ventilatory response to an increased resistive expiratory
load
E. Ventilatory response to carbon dioxide.
139. Which of the
following decreases myocyte production of atrial naturietic factor?
A. Decreased SVR
B. Decreased CO
C. Decreased CVP
D. Atrial dysrthymias
E. Acetylcholine
140A. The most
common complication in the recovery room is:
A. Saturation less than 90%
B. HR < 50
C. BP drop of more than 20% of preop
D. Nausea and vomiting
E. shivering
140B In statistical analysis
the power of a study is defined as?
A. a
B. b
C. 1-b
D. 1-a
E. 1+b
141. A patient is
scheduled for an elective femoral popliteal bypass procedure. According
to the Detsky criteria of
cardiac risk, which of the following has the highest score?
A. MI < 6 months ago and atrial fibrillation
B. Emergency surgery and age > 70
C. Emergency surgery and Pa02 < 60
D. MI < 6 months ago and an S3 gallop
142. During an elective C-section in a healthy term parturient
the addition of 0.75 MAC
of Isoflurane to a N2O/O2
anesthetic:
A. Increases blood loss
B. Increases incidence of fetal acidosis
C. Decreases maternal awareness
D. Prolongs awakening
143. The final destination of a stimulus to the left arm is:
A. left thalamus
B. left precentral gyrus
C. left periaqueductal grey
D. right postcentral gyrus
E. right periaqueductal grey
144. Which intrathecal opioid has local anaesthetic properties?
A. sufentanil
B. morpine
C. meperidine
D. alfentanil
E. fentanyl
145. In the upright lung at FRC, why are alveoli at the base of the lung
smaller than at the top?
A. increased alveolar pressure
B. increased pleural pressure
C. gravity dependent blood flow compressing alveoli
D. less negative transpulmonary pressure at the base of lung
E. regional decrease in pulmonary compliance
146. What is the best first line treatment in a parturient with
symptomatic asthma and uterine atony?
A. ergot
B. oxytocin
C. prostaglandin F2a
D. prostacyclin
E. adrenaline
147. Long term infusions of oxytocin have which of the
following side effects:
A. diarrhea
B. water retention
C. vasoconstriction
D. arrythmias
E. hyponatremia
148. Which of the following cause the hemoglobin dissociation
curve to left shift
A.
CO2
B. ¯
pH
C.
temperature
D.
2,3-DPG
E.
Hb F
149. Which test is most appropriate given a patient with
sciatic nerve root pain and a L5
neurological deficit?
A. X-rays
B. EMG
C. myelogram
D. MRI
150. The addition of N2O to high dose opiates causes:
A. vasodilation and myocardial depression
B. increased venous resistance and decreased SVR
C. hypotension and decreased CO
D. increased CVP and increased PCWP
151. A hypothetical anaesthetic vapour has a blood:alveolar
partition coefficient of 2. Given a 1% alveolar concentration what is the
pulmonary venous partial pressure at equilibrium? (Patm 760 mmHg)
A. 2 mmHg
B. 3.8 mmHg
C. 7.6 mmHg
D. 15.2 mmHg
E. 38 mmHg
152. With spinal anaesthesia in high risk neonates:
A. Reduces the need to monitor cardiovascular status
post-operatively
B. Less arterial hypotension than adults
C. Similar risk of apnea compared with general anesthesia with
halothane
D. If less than 52 weeks PCA, the lateral decubitus position is
preferred.
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